Come Out of Egypt!

"and was there until the death of Herod, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the Lord through the prophet, saying,  “Out of Egypt I called My Son.”" (Matthew 2:15)

This verse references: “When Israel  was  a child, I loved him, And out of Egypt  I called My  son. As they called them, So they went from them; They sacrificed to the Baals, And burned incense to carved images." (Hosea 11:1, 2)

It's interesting that in Matthew, Jesus is referenced, but in Hosea disobedient Israel is clearly referenced. So was Matthew intentionally taking scripture out of context just to prove Jesus is the messiah? 

This assumption has to be false for two reasons: 
1. This letter was originally written in Greek, to Greek speaking Jews, who were very familiar with OT prophesies and genealogies. Most likely these Jews would have direct or indirect access to the Torah and writings of the prophets. 

2. Matthew was one of the 12. "And beginning at  Moses and  all the Prophets, He expounded to them in all the Scriptures the things concerning Himself." (Luke 24:27) it's unlikely these two disciples kept this teaching to themselves and further Jesus made later appearances to His disciples. So, Matthew was quite aware of the teachings of the OT and how they directly related to Jesus. 

So what is the implication of this if both the OT and NT references are correct? Simple, we must combine both. These verses teach that Jesus is the son of God who took on the identity and sins of His chosen people because He is the only perfect high priest and sacrifice. Here's the huge theology shattering (for some) implication: While John 3:16 states God loves the world, the above verses make it clear salvation is only for His chosen people who are set apart. 

One other thing before I conclude this post... I was looking up additional information about this verse on the internet... I came across an intelligent sounding blog post about this verse which was complete rubbish. The author was so uneducated on this passage that he confidently stated that the Herod who slaughtered the babies was the same Herod who beheaded John the Baptist. This is completely wrong!!! These were two different Herod's. I'm sure they were related, perhaps even father/son, but they weren't the same individual. Chapter 2 clearly states that Jesus was still a child when Herod died. In reading Luke chapter 1 (I believe) you can read about the birth of John the Baptist and you'll easily figure out that Jesus and John were very close in age. Anyway, just saying...